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​​​published on 30 July 2024 I reading time approx. 7 minutes

Company Law Updates​

1. Relaxation in paying an additional fee and extension of last date of filing form No. LLP BEN-2 and LLP Form No. 4D under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) vide a General Circular No. 03/2024 dated 7 May 2024, has allowed Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) to file e-form LLP BEN-2 and LLP Form No. 4D without paying additional fees up to 1 July 2024. The said relaxation and extension has been issued due to the transition of MCA-21 Portal from version 2 to version 3 and to promote compliances on part of Limited Liability Partnership. 

2. RBI notifies investment in units or any other instrument (by whatever name called) issued by an investment fund overseas to be treated as Overseas Portfolio Investment (OPI).

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide notification RBI/2024-25/41 dated 7 June 2024, has made amendments in the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Directions, 2022. 

As per the notification, investments in units or any other instrument (by whatever name called) issued by an investment fund overseas duly regulated by the regulator in the host jurisdiction, shall be treated as Overseas Portfolio Investment (OPI). Accordingly in addition to units, investments could be made in other instruments that are regulated under OPI.

3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) releases third set of 9 Company Forms to be migrated from version 2 to version 3 on the MCA portal with effect from 15 July 2024.

The MCA is launching third set of Company Forms covering 9 (nine) forms including MSME, BEN-2, MGT-6, IEPF-1, IEPF-2, IEPF-1A, IEPF-2, IEPF-4, IEPF-5 e-verification Report on version 3 of its portal from 15 July 2024. These 9 (nine) forms were available for filing on version 2 of the MCA portal up to 4 July 2024 and will be available on version 3 from 15 July 2024. The MCA has previously migrated around 55 Company Forms from its version 2 to version 3.

Company Secretarial (CS) Compliance for Private Limited Companies​

Below is a summary of the compliances that need to be adhered to in the next quarter

(July – September 2024):


ParticularsDue Date
Filing of Annual return on Foreign Liabilities and Assets (FLA Return)31 J​uly 2024 
Hold at least one Board Meeting in the quarter July 2024- September 202430 September 2024
Director's KYC by every individual who holds DIN (KYC of Directors)30 September 2024

Hold subsequent Annual General Meeting (AGM)

(For companies whose financial year has ended 

31 March 2024)

30 September 2024
Form ECB-2 Returns
In case External Commercial Borrowings (ECB), that is, commercial loans are availed by eligible resident entities from recognized non-resident lenders, such resident entities are required to file Form ECB-2 return within seven (7) working days from the closing date of each month.

Dematerialization of securities

(Private limited companies except small companies)

30 September 2024



Labor and Industrial Updates​

1. Amendment in the Employees’ Pension Scheme 1995

The Central Government vide notifications (no. G.S.R. 325 (E)), (no. G.S.R. 326 (E)) and (no. G.S. R. 327 (E)) dated 14 June 2024 has passed various amendments under the Employees’ Pension Scheme 1995. The Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995 incorporates a unique pension calculation method for members who were employed before 16 November 1995 and are eligible for pension after 16 November 2005. For these individuals, the monthly pension is determined based on Paragraph 12(2) for the period starting from 16 November 1995 (Table A), as well as the past service pension (Table B). The recent amendment introduces a new actuarial factor in Table B specifically for employees retiring with a service duration of less than 42 years.

The recent amendment replaces Table D in the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995, which determines the factor for calculating employees’ pension withdrawal benefits. According to the amendment, starting from 14 June 2024, the calculation of employee pension will consider months of service rather than years of service. This structured approach ensures fair and transparent compensation for employees when they cease employment.

Further, the present amendment empowers the Central Provident Fund Commissioner or designated officers to impose a 1 per cent monthly penalty on unpaid contributions to the Employees’ Pension Fund. This is to enhance compliance measures, ensure timely and complete contributions, and strengthen the financial security of future pensioners.

2. Amendment in the Employees Provident Funds Scheme 1952

The Central Government vide notification (no. (G.S.R. 329(E)) dated 14 June 2024 has passed an amendment under the Employees Provident Funds (Amendment) Scheme 2024. The recent amendment establishes a penalty framework for employers who either fail to contribute to the provident fund or neglect to transfer the required accumulations. All the defaulting employers may face a penalty of 1 per cent of the arrears in contributions per month or any portion thereof. The amendment aims to improve enforcement mechanisms and foster compliances regarding the contributions to be made by the employer. 

3. Amendment in the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Act 1976

The Central Government vide notification (no. (G.S.R. 330(E)) dated 14 June 2024 has passed an amendment under the Employees Deposit Linked Insurance (Amendment) Scheme 2024. As per the amendment an employer who fails to contribute to the insurance fund or pay charges as required may face a penalty of 1 per cent of the arrears per month or part thereof. The adherence to funding requirements fortifies the insurance benefits available to employees, enhancing their financial security.

4. Karnataka High Court Ruling for EPF Contribution of “International Workers”

In the recent case (heard with several other petitions) of Karnataka High Court titled Stonehill Education Foundation v. EPFO (2024 SCC Online Kar 49), delivered on 25 April 2024, the Karnataka High Court ruled that Para 83 of the Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme 1952 and Para 43-A of the Employees’ Pension Scheme 1995 and struck down these special provisions for ‘International Workers’. 

The Hon’ble High court found these provisions, introduced in 2008, to be discriminatory as they mandated international workers to contribute to the Provident Fund irrespective of their salary, while domestic workers earning above INR 15,000/- per month were excluded. The Hon’ble High court ruled that the distinction between international and domestic workers violated Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees equality before the law. 

However, it is important to note that this judgement was passed by a single-judge bench of the Karnataka High Court. Such ruling may be subjected to challenge before larger benches of the High Court or the Hon’ble Supreme Court.  The EPFO is reportedly contemplating an appeal against the ruling until the matter is finally decided, employers may continue to deposit EPF contributions for international workers to ensure compliance, unless specific guidance is provided by the EPFO. 


5. Bureau of Indian Standards guidelines for Copper Products (Quality Control) Order 2024 

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has passed an order under the Copper Products (Quality Control) Orders-2024 vide notification S.O. 1801 (E) dated 25 April 2024. As per the Order, all the copper wires rods, copper bars used for electrical application or general engineering purposes must bear a standard mark under a license from the Bureau of Indian Standards. All the micro and small enterprise formed under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act are required to comply with the standards and timelines specifies in the order. 

The small-scale enterprises are required to adhere to the provisions outlined under this order from 19 January 2025 while the micro scale enterprises must comply from 19 April 2025.  However, if these enterprises use copper products in domestically manufactured goods or articles for export, they are exempt from using the standard mark. Non-compliance with the provisions may result in a penalty of up to INR 500,000/- for the defaulting enterprise.

6. Bureau of Indian Standards guidelines for Precision Roller and Bush Chains

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has passed an order under the Precision Roller and Bush Chains (Quality Control) Orders, 2024 vide notification S.O. 2174 (E) dated 3 June 2024. As per the Order, all the pitch transmission precision roller and bush chain attachments used by micro, small and medium enterprises for the purpose of carrying out their manufacturing activities must bear a standard mark under a license from the Bureau of Indian Standards. 

The small-scale enterprises are required to adhere to the provisions outlined under this order from 1 January 2025 while the micro scale enterprises must comply from 1 April 2025.  However, if such enterprises use precision roller and bush chain attachments in domestically manufactured goods or articles for export, they are exempt from using the standard mark. Non-compliance with the provisions may result in a penalty of up to INR 500,000 for the defaulting enterprise.

Environmental Law Updates​

1. Environmental Clearance (EC) guidelines for Metallurgical Industries

The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change has laid down certain conditions pertaining to environmental clearances to be carried out by metallurgical industries vide notification S.O. 2215 (E) dated 7 June 2024. All the metallurgical industries engaged in the melting and heating of non-toxic metals must obtain environmental clearance before commencing their manufacturing processes.

According to the notification, metallurgical industries categorized as recycling units and previously complying with the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016, E-waste (Management) Rules- 2016, and Battery Waste Management Rules 2022 are now exempted from obtaining environmental clearance. This change aims to create a business-friendly environment while upholding stringent environmental standards. 

2. Amendment Battery Waste Management-2024

The recent amendment in the Battery Waste Management (Second Amendment) Rules-2024 was published vide notification S.O. 2374 (E) is enforceable from 20 June 2024. As per the amended rules the percentage of recycled materials required in relation to the dry weight of batteries are laid down. The types of battery covered under this amendment include portable battery, electric vehicle battery, automotive battery, and industrial battery. The amendment aims to streamline battery waste disposal and recycling processes, ensuring environmental safety and compliance with international standards. This initiative seeks to minimize the environmental impact of battery disposal and promote recycling.

3. Waste Tyres Producers directed to fulfil Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) obligations for the Financial Year 2022-23 under Hazardous Waste Rules by 30 April 2024

All producers of waste tyres had been directed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) as per the Hazardous & Other Wastes (Management & Transboundary Movement) Rules- 2016 to fulfil their assigned EPR obligations for the F.Y. 2022-23 and submit their annual & quarterly returns through the waste tyre EPR Portal latest by 30 April 2024.

Further, the CPCB has issued a notification directing all the recyclers registered under the E-waste (Management) Rules, 2022 to generate EPR certificates for the quantity of e-waste recycled till 31 March 2024 latest by the 30 April 2024, it is to be noted that EPR certificate generated after 30 April 2024 will not be considered for meeting the EPR obligations of the producers for F.Y. 2023-24. CPCB also emphasized that non-compliance with such notice will result in the imposition of environmental compensation.

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